MCQMediumJEE 2024Separation of Variables

JEE Mathematics 2024 Question with Solution

The solution curve y=y(x)y = y(x) of the differential equation (1+y2)(1+log(x))dx+xdy=0(1 + y^2)(1 + \log(x)) \, dx + x \, dy = 0, x>0x > 0, passes through the point (1,1)(1, 1). If y(e)=αtan(32)β+tan(32)y(e) = \frac{\alpha - \tan\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)}{\beta + \tan\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)}, then α+2β\alpha + 2\beta is:

  • A

    22

  • B

    33

  • C

    11

  • D

    44

Answer

Correct answer:B

Step-by-step solution

Standard Method

Given: (1+y2)(1+logex)dx+xdy=0(1 + y^2)(1 + \log_e x) \, dx + x \, dy = 0 with x>0x > 0, and the curve passes through (1,1)(1,1).

Find: α+2β\alpha + 2\beta if

y(e)=αtan(32)β+tan(32)y(e) = \frac{\alpha - \tan\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)}{\beta + \tan\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)}

Rewrite the differential equation in separable form:

dydx=(1+y2)(1+logex)x\frac{dy}{dx} = -\frac{(1+y^2)(1+\log_e x)}{x}

So,

dy1+y2=(1x+lnxx)dx\frac{dy}{1+y^2} = -\left(\frac{1}{x} + \frac{\ln x}{x}\right)dx

Integrate both sides:

dy1+y2=(1x+lnxx)dx\int \frac{dy}{1+y^2} = -\int \left(\frac{1}{x} + \frac{\ln x}{x}\right)dx

Hence,

tan1y=lnx(lnx)22+C\tan^{-1}y = -\ln x - \frac{(\ln x)^2}{2} + C

which is equivalently written as

lnx+(lnx)22+tan1y=C\ln x + \frac{(\ln x)^2}{2} + \tan^{-1}y = C

Use the condition (x,y)=(1,1)(x,y)=(1,1):

ln1+(ln1)22+tan1(1)=C\ln 1 + \frac{(\ln 1)^2}{2} + \tan^{-1}(1) = C 0+0+π4=C0 + 0 + \frac{\pi}{4} = C

So,

lnx+(lnx)22+tan1y=π4\ln x + \frac{(\ln x)^2}{2} + \tan^{-1}y = \frac{\pi}{4}

Now put x=ex=e:

lne+(lne)22+tan1y(e)=π4\ln e + \frac{(\ln e)^2}{2} + \tan^{-1}y(e) = \frac{\pi}{4} 1+12+tan1y(e)=π41 + \frac{1}{2} + \tan^{-1}y(e) = \frac{\pi}{4}

Therefore,

tan1y(e)=π432\tan^{-1}y(e) = \frac{\pi}{4} - \frac{3}{2}

so

y(e)=tan(π432)y(e) = \tan\left(\frac{\pi}{4} - \frac{3}{2}\right)

Using

tan(AB)=tanAtanB1+tanAtanB\tan(A-B) = \frac{\tan A - \tan B}{1 + \tan A \tan B}

with A=π4A=\frac{\pi}{4} and B=32B=\frac{3}{2},

y(e)=1tan(32)1+tan(32)y(e) = \frac{1 - \tan\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)}{1 + \tan\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)}

Comparing with

αtan(32)β+tan(32)\frac{\alpha - \tan\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)}{\beta + \tan\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)}

we get α=1\alpha=1 and β=1\beta=1.

Thus,

α+2β=1+2(1)=3\alpha + 2\beta = 1 + 2(1) = 3

Therefore, the correct option is B.

Using substitution $$v = 1 + \log_e x$$

Take

v=1+logexv = 1 + \log_e x

Then

dv=dxxdv = \frac{dx}{x}

The differential equation becomes

dy1+y2=vdv\frac{dy}{1+y^2} = -v \, dv

Integrating,

dy1+y2=vdv\int \frac{dy}{1+y^2} = \int -v \, dv tan1y=v22+C\tan^{-1}y = -\frac{v^2}{2} + C

Substitute back v=1+logexv = 1 + \log_e x:

tan1y=(1+logex)22+C\tan^{-1}y = -\frac{(1+\log_e x)^2}{2} + C

At (1,1)(1,1),

tan1(1)=(1+loge1)22+C\tan^{-1}(1) = -\frac{(1+\log_e 1)^2}{2} + C π4=12+C\frac{\pi}{4} = -\frac{1}{2} + C

So,

C=π4+12C = \frac{\pi}{4} + \frac{1}{2}

Hence,

tan1y=(1+logex)22+π4+12\tan^{-1}y = -\frac{(1+\log_e x)^2}{2} + \frac{\pi}{4} + \frac{1}{2}

For x=ex=e, we have 1+logee=21+\log_e e = 2. Thus,

tan1y(e)=42+π4+12=π432\tan^{-1}y(e) = -\frac{4}{2} + \frac{\pi}{4} + \frac{1}{2} = \frac{\pi}{4} - \frac{3}{2}

So again,

y(e)=1tan(32)1+tan(32)y(e) = \frac{1 - \tan\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)}{1 + \tan\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)}

Therefore α=1\alpha=1, β=1\beta=1, and α+2β=3\alpha+2\beta=3.

Common mistakes

  • Treating the equation as linear in yy is incorrect because the factor (1+y2)(1+y^2) makes it directly separable. First rearrange to dy1+y2\frac{dy}{1+y^2} and collect the xx-terms on the other side.

  • While integrating 1+lnxx\frac{1+\ln x}{x}, students often miss the term (lnx)22\frac{(\ln x)^2}{2}. Use lnxxdx=(lnx)22\int \frac{\ln x}{x} \, dx = \frac{(\ln x)^2}{2}.

  • A common error is using tan1(1)=1\tan^{-1}(1)=1. This is wrong; tan1(1)=π4\tan^{-1}(1)=\frac{\pi}{4}. The initial condition must be applied with the correct inverse tangent value.

  • In the tangent subtraction identity, the denominator is 1+tanAtanB1+\tan A \tan B, not 1tanAtanB1-\tan A \tan B. Use tan(π432)=1tan(32)1+tan(32)\tan\left(\frac{\pi}{4}-\frac{3}{2}\right)=\frac{1-\tan\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)}{1+\tan\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)}.

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